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10250 North Freeway @ West Road
Houston, Texas 77037
Tel: (281) 447-8484
KEEPING HOUSE FOR
THE LORD
Written by H. Frank Fort
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House for the Lord,
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LESSON #21
"Singing" No. 2
In
our last lesson we showed that singing like all other forms of worship must be
prompted by the spirit of praise, if it is to be acceptable to God as worship.
It is included in those "spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God by Jesus
Christ" 1 Pet. 2:5, and is
"the sacrifice of praise…the fruit of our lips" Heb. 13:15.
We
know, of course, that the expression "the fruit of our lips" as an
expression of" praise" would be limited to vocal music, but this would
be just as true in the Old Testament as in the New. But there they were
commanded to "sing praises unto hire with the timbrel and harp" Ps.
149:3. Here singing was accompanied by "the psaltery and harp" Ps.
150:3. The question we wish to consider now, is this: Is it scriptural to
use instrumental accompaniment to "the fruit of our lips" in New
Testament worship?
Before we
consider the New Testament in this connection, let us notice the Old Testament.
In Amos 5:23, God said to the
Northern Kingdom (ten tribes) "I will not hear the melody of thy
viols". The word here-translated "viols" is translated
"psaltery" about 13 times and "viols" as "viol" 4
times, and refers to a musical instrument resembling the guitar. It is from the
Hebrew "NEBEL”. It has other meanings, but this is its meaning as a
musical instrument. In Amos 6:5, one
of the charges against Israel was that they would "chant to the sound of
the viol, and invent to themselves instruments of music, like David". So
here the "viol" is numbered with "the instruments of music".
By just looking at these references alone, they seem to indicate something evil,
but the contexts show that the evil was not "the melody of thy viols" Amos 5:23. But their spiritual condition while making it, for
condemnation is also expressed regarding other things which were specifically
required by the law. "I hate, I despise your feast days, and I will not
smell in your solemn assemblies", etc. Amos 5:21‑23. A similar judgment is expressed in Isa.
1:11‑15, for the same reason some 27 years later.
Now notice,
concerning the reference to David's inventing of "instruments of
music", David said, "four thousand praised the Lord with the
instruments which I made…to praise them with" 1
Chron. 23:5. Some say David did this presumptuously. Well, if he did, one of
two things is true.
·
Either God accepted the worship of
praise accompanied by his presumptuous invention
·
God was more merciful under law, than
he is under grace, according to those who teach that he now damns all that use
the instrument in worship.
I do not believe David acted
presumptuously in regard to "the instruments…to praise". David
separated certain "for song in the house of the Lord with cymbals,
psalteries, and harps, for the service in the house of God"
2
Chron. 25:6, in connection with those "who
should prophecy with harps, with psalteries, and with cymbals" 1
Chron 25:6. About 290 years later, King Hezekiali, in meeting the conditions
in order to a revival among his subjects.
"Set the Levites in the house of
the Lord with cymbals, with psalteries and with harps, according to the
commandment of David, and of GAD the king's seer, and Nathan the prophet: for so
was the commandment of the lord by his prophets. And the Levites stood with the
instruments of David, and the priests with the trumpets” 2 Chron. 29:25,26. Here musical instruments were "in the house
of the Lord' by "the commandment of the Lord by his prophets"; not the
presumption of David. When God said therefore, "I will not hear the melody
of thy viols" (psalteries) Amos 5:23
he did not say this because David had made them, but for the same reason he
said, "Though ye offer me burnt offerings and your meat offerings, I will
not accept them" Amos 5:22. The
trouble was not in what they did, but in the doers, themselves.
There is no
question but what this order obtained in Jewish worship (during the apostolic
age, yet not one time were any of the churches rebuked regarding instrumental
music. They who teach that instrumental music is unauthorized in New Testament
worship must believe that when the Jews obeyed the commandment to "praise
him (God) with the sound of the trumpet: praise him with the psaltery and
harp" Ps. 150:3, they could do
this during the apostolic age. But that when these same Jews were converted, and
in New Testament relationship, when they were told to "sing Psalms" James
5:13, they instinctively knew that the instrument was sinful. The words
"sing psalms" are from one Greek word PSALLO and is defined as meaning
"to rub or touch the surface; to twitch or twang, that is, to play one
stringed instrument (celebrate the divine worship with music and accompanying
odes), make melody, sing (Psalms) (James Strong). Notice, now, what J. W.
McGarvey, Campbellite debater said about this word in a letter to an inquirer.
"The Greek word PSALLO originally meant to touch, then to twang a bow
string, or play a stringed instrument with the fingers, as in the expression,
"Touch my light guitar". It meant to play a harp, and finally to
sing" (Stark‑Worlich Debate, P. 129). Again, I. B. Grubbs said as
quoted by Mr. Worlich, "While the word PSALLO originally meant to strike,
or twang the strings of a musical instrument, it had, like many terms, outgrown
this original sense, and cannot have this meaning in the New Testament. The use
of the word PSALLO first applied to playing on an instrument, then to singing
with an instrument. Accompaniment, then finally the composition that had been so
accompanied" (Stark ‑Worlich Debate P. 128). Mr. Worlick said that
Liddell and Scott gave the latest meaning of PSALLO as "to sing to a
harp".
It is seen
that the rejection of instrumental music by those who call it sinful in worship,
is not based on what the word PSALLO originally meant, but on what it is said to
have revolutionized to mean. Look at the following:
"player…play…play…playing…played…played…playing" 1 Sam. 16:16,17,18,23, 1 Sam. 18:10 ‑ 19:9. In these 7
passages we have the word "NAGAN" translated as above, and. defined as
follows: "to thrum, .i. e. beat a tune with the fingers, esp. to play on a
stringed instrument, hence to make music…player on, instruments, sing to the
stringed instruments" (James Strong Lexicon). Now 800 years after David had
thus played, the Septuagint expressed the act indicated by NAGAN by the Greek
word "PSALLEIN" which always means to play, thus to PSALLEIN is to
NAGAN, according to the Septuagint. Now in the "Antiquities of the
Jews", Josephus who like Paul was a Hebrew and a Pharisee living in the
same country at the same time, writing in the same language described what David
did, he used the word "PSALLEIN" which is the Greek translation of
NAGAN. Josephus said David charmed away the evil spirit of Saul by "PLAYING
upon the harp" (Antiquities, Book VI, Chap. 8, Par. 2). Thus some would
have us to believe that when Josephus used the word PSALLEIN he referred to that
which included the instrument, while Paul at the same time, used the same word
to exclude the instrument. Josephus obtained his facts as to David's playing
from the Septuagint version, yet used the word PSALLEIN to say that David
"played the harp". If the word had alienated from it's original
meaning, why did Josephus rise it to show that David played when it didn't mean
play at all, in his day, according to those who say it revolutionized?
Now in the
New Testament, we have the word in various forms used by Paul and James as
follows. Keep in mind that this word was used by their contemporary, the Jewish
historian, Josepaus, to tell what David did with a harp.
·
"cheerful is any, let hint
PSALLETO ‑ James 5:13
·
"I will PSALO with the spirit and
I will PSALO with the understanding also 1
Cor. 14:15
·
"Speaking one to another in
PSALMOS and HUMNOS and spiritual ODE ADOMTES and PSALLOMTES with your heart to
the Lord
Eph. 5:19
·
"Teaching and admonishing one
another with PSALMOS and HUMNOS and spiritual ODE. ADO with grace in your hearts
unto God" Col. 3:16
·
"Give praise unto thee among the
Gentiles and PSALO unto thy name" Rom.
15:9
Let us notice
Rom. 15:9, first. This is quoted from
Ps. 18:49, "Therefore will I
give thanks unto thee, O Lord, among the heathen, and sing praises unto thy
name". Here the word "sing" is PSALLO, "to play on a
stringed instrument". If PSALLO "originally meant to strike or twang
the strings of a musical instrument" (Starks‑worlick Debate), does Rom.
15:9, where supposedly PSALLO has ceased to mean what it originally meant,
fulfill Ps. 18:49, so that Paul could say, "as it is written" Rom.
15:9? How could Rom. 15:9, where
we are told the word PSALLO means only to sing, fulfill Ps.
18:49, where the word originally "meant to strike…the strings of a
musical instrument"? If the word PSALLO dill not in fulfillment meet the
demands of the prophecy, then it was not "as it is written”, but Paul
affirmed that it was, and we believe it.
Next week we
shall continue with the references of the New Testament showing that PSALL0
involves the use of musical instruments.
Prepared by:
H. Frank Fort, Minister,
Berean Baptist Church,
Dec. 26 1956.
"It Does Make a Difference What You Believe"